I read that the price includes free range, eco, etc varieties which are more expensive and in more demand nowadays, probably just that explains a good chunk of the price increase.
https://www.thebignewsletter.com/p/hatching-a-conspiracy-a-b...
Reading through them, I wonder why CPIs aren't based on empirical correlational patterns between prices over time? Sort of like in these articles:
https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1742-6596/1796/1/... https://www.ecb.europa.eu/pub/pdf/scpwps/ecbwp1011.pdf
Or maybe they are? I'm not an expert in this and reading through some of the government literature there's no mention of this.
Then at least you would know that a given price marker is a good empirical index of how other prices are changing also, at least for a given dimension/component.