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They're overly cautious about creating inadvertent structural forms of discrimination. Although perhaps they're not actually paranoid, given some recent court rulings.
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>you can just objectively measure if someone is fully blind

No not really. Blindness is a spectrum.

https://www.cnib.ca/en/sight-loss-info/blindness/what-blindn...

https://www.perkins.org/what-blindness-really-looks-like/

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That's presumably what the word 'fully' is being employed for.
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Sure, but its meaningless as you don't need to be fully blind to be legally blind. Its easy to delimitate things if can just change the units to fit your scheme and do away with the ambiguities.
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I'm legally blind. This seems needlessly pedantic. What GP was highlighting was a valid distinction between disabilities that are likely or not to change, and how the lack of that distinction leads to the situations like TFA.
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