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I’m a leftie from a 50% leftie family. Apparently I showed my left handedness as a baby when grasping for things and hardly used my right hand. My mother was also a leftie, but in her generation she was forced to write with her right hand. The net result being she could write equally well with both hands. When I learnt this I tried to copy it.
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Right, I know that dexterity in a hand is largely a teachable thing.

And, similarly, I don't think this is unique to hands. It is just that most people don't know what their "dominant" foot or eye are. (I'm now curious to know about dominant ears. That is almost certainly a thing?)

My question is largely one of curiosity to know when the dominance fully sets in.

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The introduction of this article makes reference to a couple of papers (e.g. https://doi.org/10.1038/s41598-017-16827-y ) that handedness is observable in utero but cautions small sample sizes for these studies.
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Right, my question was more meant for how well established that is. And if it is open to influence. My searches made it look like it was not positive that handedness was fixed until a bit later. Still before formal schooling, but not necessarily in babies.
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