Let X be a set of points not all of which are collinear. Then, there are two points a, b in X such that the line l passing through X only passes through a and b.
I don't see how this rephrasing changes anything. Of course there are two points a and b because again, the definition of the problem leads naturally, obviously, and definitionally to this result.
Consider a 3x3 grid. It satisfies this argument.
There's nothing novel here. I feel like I'm taking fucking crazy pills.
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