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by holaysuns2 hours ago |
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upvoteby orf1 hours ago|
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> Probably less than 20% of that curve is 'green good news'

I would call this a basic misrepresentation, but you just pulled that number out of thin air. Or somewhere worse?

50% of the decline is from industry, 50% from residential[1]. During that timeframe, industrial output increased.

1. https://www.iea.org/data-and-statistics/data-tools/energy-st...

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upvoteby red75prime1 hours ago|
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[1] gives different numbers. About 3x decrease in industrial energy consumption since 1970. Steel production decrease is about 3x ([2]). Chemical production has shifted from bulk production to pharmaceuticals.

[1] https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/media/651422e03d371...

[2] https://commonslibrary.parliament.uk/research-briefings/cbp-...

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upvoteby orf1 hours ago|
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That’s a different metric - “million tonnes of oil equivalent”. That’s not the same as electricity consumption - that’s the total amount of energy used in all kinds of industrial processes.
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upvoteby holaysuns43 minutes ago|
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The data across the board supports the notion that reduction in electricity is an industrial phenomenon overall, there is no data to suggest this is a 'consumer green activity' phenom - not even the link you provided.

All of think links here, the person you are responding to, mine (above) and your own directly point towards reduction in industrial use.

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upvoteby orf36 minutes ago|
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Rather than post incessantly about the vague “across the board data” and “probably X and Y” you could always cite a source.

Just a thought.

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upvoteby holaysuns54 minutes ago|
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No, literally the evidence you provided does not support the 50/50 thesis, moreover, the data does show that residential reduction is a marginal - and you're probably failing to take into consideration the UK has grown by more than 10M people during that period aka this is 'per capita' - not aggregate.

This government data is must more substantial than that link, and it puts the ratio at 70% reduction in electricity due to deindustrialization.

Moreover - the OP's comment was a blatant misrepresentation (lie) - by ignoring deindustrialization, the primary factor as stated in the article (and in reality) - plus a bit of a thrown slander aka the 'Telegaph-esque' nonsense.

This is not Twitter.

This is not even controversial.

[1] https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/media/6aba96e8997a4...

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upvoteby orf38 minutes ago|
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Industrial usage fell about 100k TJ, household fell ~110k TJ since the peak.

The linked numbers are not per-capita, they are absolute.

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