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> I assume this is there because their unions would strike

If postal employees are federal GS employees, they are not legally allowed to strike:

https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/5/7311

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Exactly. Therefore "Have postal employees still be federal employees [...] because their unions would strike [...]" can be translated to "If we allow them to strike (by them not being federal employees), then they will strike".
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Why shouldn’t they be federal employees?
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Don't forget, pre-fund pension accounts for future 'yet-to-be-hired' employees.
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Wasn't that requirement finally repealed recently?
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