I don't believe this is true. I expect that what's going on there is the WAN and LAN ports on the switch [0] are in separate bridges.
Why do you believe that they're using VLANs behind the scenes? It seems silly to add and remove a whole-ass VLAN tag to traffic based on what port it comes in on. Do you have switch chip or other relevant documentation that indicates that this is what's going on?
[0] or WAN and LAN interfaces, if the ports are actually separate, entirely-independent interfaces, rather than bound up in a switch
That said, this is in no way my area of expertise.