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They were written in Latin until well into the modern era. Newton wrote his major work in Latin, for example.
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Yes, I know. Why the confidence that this contradicts anything I said?

Edit: Re-reading I realise you were reading that as me thinking the books weren't written in Latin, whereas I was trying to get the parent poster to think a bit beyond "the books were written in Latin" to wonder why they might be written in Latin long, long after the fall of the Roman Empire.

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Because other languages didn't have a writing system, which is why every western language is using latin alphabet now.
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Would you like to qualify that hilariously wrong statement a bit?
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Is there a question here or just sneering?

I don't really care to waste my time since you don't really seem interested in learning anything new. Have a nice day.

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Mostly sneering, if I'm honest. I love learning new stuff, but I'm not optimistic you can help there.
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Go waste someone else's time then :)
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